Quick query

galaxy

I was hoping someone could give me some advice with a query I have regarding a credit I need to raise for a customer. I work for a payroll company and our bureau department were late in paying the company's PAYE, as a result they were charged interest of £6.70 which we have agreed to raise a credit note for.

My question is would I have to raise a credit note for 6.70 plus standard VAT? as they then get a credit note for £7.87 which is more than the charge they have received or would I use a different VAT code?

Thanks

Pacelli

If you are VAT registered and normally charge them VAT when billing, I would include VAT on the credit note.

However, this is only what I think, not what I know!

sarahwilson

I wouldn't put VAT on as interest is not vatable as far as I am aware.

coocoocadgoo

I'm fairly certain you do not charge VAT on interest, because the interest amount is based on the gross amount of the debt.
We never charge VAT on our interest charges or late payment charges either.

Pacelli

The way I see it, the Interest is between HMRC and your client. You are merely reducing their liability to you for not giving them a service which you had charged for, including VAT. Therefore you should include VAT in the credit note.

Or am I wrong?

Poodle

HI

VAT should be added to your credit note.

Poodle

CJC

A couple of minutes on the HMRC website finds...

4.1 Loans, granting of credit and advances

If in the course of your business for a consideration you

• supply credit
• advance money in the form of loans
• provide overdrafts or other advances

your supply is exempt. The charge you make for a loan, advance or credit facility is usually described as interest. The value of the exempt supply in the grant of credit or loan is the gross interest or other sum received, but not the repayment of capital loaned.
Interest received on money deposited is consideration for an exempt supply.

So you could have done what I did and found the correct information in a few minutes.

Bluewednesday

This caused a good discussion, i was getting worried as I wouldn't have charged VAT either but it's complicated by the fact that you are refunding part of your VATable charges. You are not really crediting the interest but refunding part of your sales cost.

For that reason I wouldn't call it an exempt supply. If the company paid the interest directly then it would be different but they are actually refunding some of their fee so I believe it should have VAT on it.

To avoid it can your company pay the interest directly for the client?

CJC

On reflection, I was probably slightly harsh there but I still think that it's better to ask HMRC about this sort of rather recherché issue than us lot.

Nilesh Mandvia

galaxy wrote: »

a credit note for £7.87 which is more than the charge they have received or would I use a different VAT code?

Thanks

Is your client VAT registered? If, yes, then do not worry, as they have to pay vat back on credit note. So they would receive benefit of £6.70, and £1.17, they have to pay over to HMRC.

However, if the client is not VAT regaister just raise credit note for £6.70 including vat (Net amount £5.70 and vat £1.00) As the client is not registered he would get full credit of £6.70.

Certainly 4.1 inerest does not apply.

If you cosider this payment as compensation then it would become interesting.

Nilesh