PEV December 2008

michaelar25
michaelar25 Registered Posts: 12 New contributor ๐Ÿธ
Hiya

Can anyone explain section 1 task 1.1 b) Direct material (glass) price variance. I am getting the price as 27,000 Adverse but the answers say 21,000 Adverse and im totally stuck on were the answers coming from.

Thanks Michaela

p.s Good Luck everyone doing exams next week

Comments

  • sdv
    sdv Registered Posts: 585 Epic contributor ๐Ÿ˜
    Budgeted material price = 120 000/10 000 = ยฃ12 / Kg

    Actual material price = 147 000 / 10 500 = ยฃ14/Kg - paid more then budgeted = ADVERSE VARIENCE

    Material purchased 10500 kg x (14 - 12) = ยฃ21000 Adverse
  • michaelar25
    michaelar25 Registered Posts: 12 New contributor ๐Ÿธ
    Thank you, thats really helped i understand now. You couldnt just explain the direct material (glass) usage variance?
  • sdv
    sdv Registered Posts: 585 Epic contributor ๐Ÿ˜
    Expected Usage = 2100 units times 5kg per unit (10,000/2000 units) = 10,500 KG
    ACTUAL Usage = 10,500 Kg (same as expected) therefore no varience at all

    calculation

    (10,500 - 10,500) x ยฃ12 per KG = NIL
  • Nikolia
    Nikolia Registered Posts: 4 New contributor ๐Ÿธ
    Dec 2008 exam PEV

    Can someone explain to me how in Dec 2008 exam in Section 2 task 2.1 (a) the raw materials stock turnover in days was calculated?

    Formula is: Stock/Cost of sales x 365 days.
    In this task stock is 60,000 and cost of sales is 786,000. So the answer is 60,000/786,000x365= 27.86 days. However the correct answer is 40.56 days.

    I realised that it was calculated as: Stock of material (glass)/Direct materials (glass)x365 (60,000/540,000x365=40.56 days). But that is not divided by cost of sales as formula says? Or cost of sales is meant to be just the cost of materials if we count stock turnover for materials?

    Please explain it to me!!!
  • sdv
    sdv Registered Posts: 585 Epic contributor ๐Ÿ˜

    I realised that it was calculated as: Stock of material (glass)/Direct materials (glass)x365 (60,000/540,000x365=40.56 days). But that is not divided by cost of sales as formula says? Or cost of sales is meant to be just the cost of materials if we count stock turnover for materials?

    Please explain it to me!!!

    Cost of sales - you are comming from Financial accounting perception. Even in Financial accounting cost of sales does not include Labour costs and Overheads costs, Both of these are treated as business expenses after gross profit.

    From costing point of view it's Stock material turn over and therefore it has to be stock of materials divide by Cost of Materials purhased times 365 = 40.56 days. This ratio actually tells us that we hold 40 days worth of stock in our warehouse. If there is a strike or stock stock shortage we can maintain production for the next 40 days
  • Nikolia
    Nikolia Registered Posts: 4 New contributor ๐Ÿธ
    Thank you!!!
  • nosaj
    nosaj Registered Posts: 20 New contributor ๐Ÿธ
    thanks for this explanation as well I just log on to ask explanation on this i was just working the same paper and could not get the answer they have.
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