Flat rate surplus

Psyche
Psyche Registered Posts: 187 Dedicated contributor 🦉
Hi all! Another flat rate question (someday I will get my head round this, I promise!).

If someone is on the flat rate and has a surplus how is this accounted for? Normally it would be:
Sales CR 100.00
VAT Payable CR 17.50
A/Rec. DR 117.50

But on the flat rate it would be (Say rate of 12%)
Sales CR 100.00
VAT Payable CR 14.10 (£117.50 x 12%)
VAT Surplus CR 3.40
A/Rec. DR 117.50

And then the VAT Surplus would be a non-taxable income? Or is Corporation Tax due on the surplus? This seems unfair as the surplus is basically VAT which is not being reclaimed on purchases.

Thanks for any help.
~Psyche

Comments

  • Rachel
    Rachel Registered Posts: 348 Dedicated contributor 🦉
    I was told to treat it as other income and therefore taxable but I have searched and can't find anything to back that up
  • Bluewednesday
    Bluewednesday Registered Posts: 1,624 Beyond epic contributor 🧙‍♂️
    It is subject to corporation tax
  • qwerty
    qwerty Registered Posts: 82 Regular contributor ⭐
    You record the transaction as follows:

    Dr Accounts receivable £117.50
    Cr Sales £103.40
    Cr VAT £14.10

    The amount is taxable. The surplus is not VAT which is not being reclaimed, the difference is assumed to be the input VAT which should be reclaimable for normal businesses in that sector.

    The expenses you are deducting are inclusive of VAT and therefore you are obtaining more tax relief as your expenses are higher. The 'VAT surplus', which increases sales, will increase taxable profit back to what it should be under the normal VAT scheme (in HMRC's eyes anyway, but most people who use the flat rate scheme are making a saving, otherwise they wouldn't use it).
  • Monsoon
    Monsoon Registered Posts: 4,071 Beyond epic contributor 🧙‍♂️
    The surplus is taxable.
    And if it's a deficit, move off the flat rate asap!

    I record VAT as normal and post the normal box 5 figure to a dummy bank account as paid from there. This balances out the VAT control account.
    I then post the acutal flat rate amount paid, as a bank transfer from the actual bank account to the dummy account.
    The difference in the dummy account is the flat rate profit, and I balance the dummy account with a credit to other income, which is taxable.

    It's probably not the most elegant method but when worknig in a software package it's the way I like to do it, as then I can see if the FRS is still beneficial.
  • AK002
    AK002 Registered Posts: 2,492 Beyond epic contributor 🧙‍♂️
    qwerty wrote: »
    You record the transaction as follows:

    Dr Accounts receivable £117.50
    Cr Sales £103.40
    Cr VAT £14.10

    The amount is taxable. The surplus is not VAT which is not being reclaimed, the difference is assumed to be the input VAT which should be reclaimable for normal businesses in that sector.

    The expenses you are deducting are inclusive of VAT and therefore you are obtaining more tax relief as your expenses are higher. The 'VAT surplus', which increases sales, will increase taxable profit back to what it should be under the normal VAT scheme (in HMRC's eyes anyway, but most people who use the flat rate scheme are making a saving, otherwise they wouldn't use it).

    This is what we do, it's essentially just extra sales, subject to CT.
  • Psyche
    Psyche Registered Posts: 187 Dedicated contributor 🦉
    Ah I see, makes sense now I know to put the purchases through gross.
    Thanks for the help!
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