Dfs
jaimie
Registered Posts: 13 New contributor 🐸
In the december 2009 practice exam, when working out goodwilll, when the company has 6000,000 shares = 60% Why in dec 09 exam is it worked out at 75% and then 25% non controlling interest?
I worked this out the same as in the june 2010 exam, but it seems the impairment loss in dec 09 has been taken off whilst working out the share % etc???
I worked this out the same as in the june 2010 exam, but it seems the impairment loss in dec 09 has been taken off whilst working out the share % etc???
0
Comments
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6000/8000 not 100000
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Where did the 8000 come from?
Thanks0 -
8000 is the share capital of the wikkie ltd0
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oh right thanks, makes a bit more sense!0
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