Assessment 2 Task 1.2
Please can someone help me with answering this question.
Thanks
Sophie
Comments

@CornishPixie do you know how to work this one out?0

CornishPixie Registered, MAAT, AATQB, AAT Licensed Accountant Posts: 117 Dedicated contributor 🌟 🐵 🌟Hi there.
So first, you need to work out your standard costs.
36/3 = £12 per standard kg
1.5 x 300 = 450 standard hours
22.5/1.5 = £15 per standard hour
Then just use the calculations to get the variance.
So for materials usage: (300 x 3kg x 12)  (960 x 12) = 720 (adverse)
labour rate variance: (1.5 x 300 x £15 )  7140 = 390 (adverse)
Variable overhead efficiency variance: (10.50 x 450)  (10.5 x 420) = 315 (favourable)0 
CornishPixie Registered, MAAT, AATQB, AAT Licensed Accountant Posts: 117 Dedicated contributor 🌟 🐵 🌟Having a rethink on the VOEV as I now get 210 favourable.0

@CornishPixie thanks for that, now that you get 210 do i need to do a different calculation?CornishPixie said:Having a rethink on the VOEV as I now get 210 favourable.
0 
CornishPixie Registered, MAAT, AATQB, AAT Licensed Accountant Posts: 117 Dedicated contributor 🌟 🐵 🌟Yes, so you need to take the 10.5 standard hours and divide by the 1.5 standard hours to give you 7.
450 x 7 = 3150
420 x 7 = 2940
3150  2940 = 210 favourable0 
@CornishPixie thank you for this i also sent you a message about the other task from yesterday0

0

CornishPixie Registered, MAAT, AATQB, AAT Licensed Accountant Posts: 117 Dedicated contributor 🌟 🐵 🌟Right, so the overhead volume variance is the difference between the amount of fixed overhead actually applied to produced goods based on production volume, and the amount that was budgeted to be applied to produced goods.
Having only had a quick look at this, I would try:
16,000 / 12800 = 1.25
1.25 x 14,000 = 17500
17500  18200 = 700 (adverse)
Let me know if I'm right or wrong though  if wrong I will have another look tonight.0 
@CornishPixie i checked the answers and they show it as 1500 favorable, do you know how they would have got that?CornishPixie said:Right, so the overhead volume variance is the difference between the amount of fixed overhead actually applied to produced goods based on production volume, and the amount that was budgeted to be applied to produced goods.
Having only had a quick look at this, I would try:
16,000 / 12800 = 1.25
1.25 x 14,000 = 17500
17500  18200 = 700 (adverse)
Let me know if I'm right or wrong though  if wrong I will have another look tonight.0 
CornishPixie Registered, MAAT, AATQB, AAT Licensed Accountant Posts: 117 Dedicated contributor 🌟 🐵 🌟Ooops, I got that slightly wrong.
It is the actual units x absorption rate  budgeted units x absorption rate.
We know that the absorption rate is 16,000 / 12,800 = £1.25
So that would give us 14,000 x 1.25 (17500)  12,800 x 1.25 (16,000) = 1500 favourable0 
CornishPixie said:
Ooops, I got that slightly wrong.
It is the actual units x absorption rate  budgeted units x absorption rate.
We know that the absorption rate is 16,000 / 12,800 = £1.25
So that would give us 14,000 x 1.25 (17500)  12,800 x 1.25 (16,000) = 1500 favourable</blockquote
thank you for your help0
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