Hi all. Saw a similar question and thought I’d post mine for any thoughts . New client. Is pub manager and 20%shareholder. Owner of pub pays client 20%net of vat of bar takings. Client then pays the staff through payroll from his 20%. The owner takes 20% vat from clients pay prior to paying him ( as till bar takings so the vat would have to be paid ) clients income is classed as managers fees . Does this seem like a normal set up ? My client could not claim the vat from his fees back could he ? I think this may just be the way it’s shown as bar takings less vat then 20% manger fees .
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