Question on associates

Barry
Barry Registered Posts: 101 Dedicated contributor 🦉
Hello everybody I wonder if someone can help

The question is this. A group has a 25%interest in a company's share capital of $100,000 and holds €100,000of convertable debt convertable into a variable number of shares which are valued at $110,000 and net assets are €1m and share price is 10. How would the cost of conversion be accounted for ?

This is not a real life example it's just a question I am looking at but can't grasp it.

Thanks in advance.

Comments

  • Steve Collings
    Steve Collings Registered Posts: 997 Epic contributor 🐘
    Hi Barry

    You seem to have dollars and euros going on in your question so I'm going to assume dollars for the answer.

    The investor's interest in the associate is 25% of the net assets of $1m which is $250,000 plus the convertible debt of $100,000 - so the investor's total interest is $350,000 (this is before any conversion). You need to work out the increase in the investor's interest which you can do like this:

    Variable number of equity shares of $110,000 divided by the share price of $10 = 11,000 extra shares taken up on conversion. Add this onto the investor's original shareholding of 25,000 which means the investor now owns (25,000 + 11,000) 36,000 shares in the associate. The associate's shares have also increased by the 11,000 extra shares resulting in issued share capital of (100,000 plus 11,000) = 111,000 shares. Therefore you can work out the investor's new holding by saying:

    36,000 shares / 111,000 shares x 100 = 32.43% (previously 25%)

    The investor's share of the net assets and goodwill after conversion comes to $350k which is made up of 32.43% of the net asets of $1,100,000 = $356,730. There is also negative goodwill arising on the increase in the investor's stake of $6,730 which is the difference between the convertible loan (consideration) of $100,000 and the additional share of the net assets of $106,730 which I have worked out as the diff between what the investor originally owned ($250k) and what they own now ($356,730).

    That was a challenge for a Friday morning!!

    Best wishes

    Steve
  • Steve Collings
    Steve Collings Registered Posts: 997 Epic contributor 🐘
    Hi Barry
    The investor's share of the net assets and goodwill after conversion comes to $350k which is made up of 32.43% of the net asets of $1,100,000 = $356,730. There is also negative goodwill arising on the increase in the investor's stake of $6,730 which is the difference between the convertible loan (consideration) of $100,000 and the additional share of the net assets of $106,730 which I have worked out as the diff between what the investor originally owned ($250k) and what they own now ($356,730).

    Sorry, I should have been a bit clearer when I said 'The investor's share of the net assets and goodwill after conversion comes to $350k'. You take the share of net assets of $356,730 and deduct the negative goodwill of $6,730.

    Cheers
    Steve
  • Barry
    Barry Registered Posts: 101 Dedicated contributor 🦉
    Thankyou Steve
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