PTC - Private Residencies

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SLM
SLM Registered Posts: 64 Regular contributor ⭐
in AAT Level 4 (Level 8 in Scotland)
Hi guys,

Wondering if someone could just clarify something for me...can't quite just get my head around this but think I may have cracked it.

A guy has a house and lives in it for 3 and a half years before going to work in Australia for 6 years, he then returns to the UK and stays in his house for a further 3 years. Now the period when he was working in Australia is exempt isn't it as he has a period of occupation on return? What I mean is had he not returned to that house for a period of occupation would the time he was in Australia still be exempt????

Found this particularly confusing, its the only thing I keep getting wrong now!!!

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  • Ampsie
    Ampsie Registered Posts: 145 Dedicated contributor 🦉
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    SLM wrote: »
    Hi guys,

    Wondering if someone could just clarify something for me...can't quite just get my head around this but think I may have cracked it.

    A guy has a house and lives in it for 3 and a half years before going to work in Australia for 6 years, he then returns to the UK and stays in his house for a further 3 years. Now the period when he was working in Australia is exempt isn't it as he has a period of occupation on return? What I mean is had he not returned to that house for a period of occupation would the time he was in Australia still be exempt????

    Found this particularly confusing, its the only thing I keep getting wrong now!!!

    I agree this bit is confusing!
    But i think the time in Australia would still have been exempt as the rules in my book say for deemed occupation:

    up to 4 years when absent due to employment in the UK
    ANY period when absent due to living abroad due to employment.

    I hope that helps and if i'm wrong someone please correct me!!

    Ampsie
  • SLM
    SLM Registered Posts: 64 Regular contributor ⭐
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    My book states that:

    "The period of occupation is also deemed to include certain periods of absence, provided the individual has no other main residence at that time and the period of absence was at some time both preceded by and FOLLOWED BY a period of occupation"

    I've struggled for a while with this so I can't actually believe I may have got my head around it now. Was just looking for some clarification that I actually am???

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